1. By which of the following Charter Acts, the Governor General of Bengal became the Governor General of India?

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court under Regulating Act, 1773 1. All the public servants of the company were made amenable to its jurisdiction. 2. It could also entertain suits, actions and complaints against persons in the company's service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. Which of the following is/are the principal features (s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive governement of the provinces. 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims. 3. Devolution of legistative authority by the centre for the provinces. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
4. Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1858 1. The East India Company's control came to an end. 2. The Board of Directors was abolished. 3. The basis of Court of Proprietors came to an end. 4. Secretary of state will be a member of British Cabinet. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
5. Consider the following statements about the Indian Council Act 1892 1. Provincial Legislative Councils were to be introduced. 2. The number of members Executive Council increased to 8. 3. Power to ask questions in the Council was not allowed. 4. Supplementaries were allowed. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
6. Consider the following statements regarding federal legislature of the Government of India Act, 1935 1. In the Upper House the election was to be direct while in the Lower House it was indirect. 2. The princes were to nominate 2/3rd of the representatives in the Lower House and 2/5th in the Upper House. 3. There was a provision of Dyarchy at the states. 4. Residuary legislative powers were vested in the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
7. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
8. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
9. Who was the first Indian to join the Viceroy's Executive Council?
10. Who among the following governor-generals created the covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
11. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
12. Consider the following statements about the Civil Services under British rule 1. The Civil Service was started in 1833, under Charter Act. 2. In 1853, the Civil Services became an open competition, however the exams were conducted in London only. 3. The first exam was held in 1855 under the Board of Control's supervision. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
13. The Constitution of India is republican because it
14. The Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay to codify Indian laws was appointed in which of the following years?
15. ''The Muslim majority provinces would be permitted to form a seperate state and set up a separate assembly for framing a constitution for their state''. This declaration formed part of the
16. What is the correct sequence of the following development in the constitutional history of India? 1. Cabinet Mission Plan 2. Morley-Minto Report 3. Montague-Chelmsford Report 4. Simon Commission Report Select the correct chronological order using the codes given below
17. Which Act had introduced the dyarchical system in the Indian provinces?
18. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a
19. For the Karachi Session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
20. The Government of India Act, 1935 had
21. Consider the following statements 1. The Cripps Mission Plan did not satisfy the Muslim League. 2. The Cabinet Mission Plan did satisfy both the Congress and the League. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
22. Which amongst the following provided a common factor for the tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?
23. With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
24. The residuary powers, under the Act of 1935, were placed under
25. After Quit India Movement, C Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled ''The Way Out''. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
26. Which one of the following is false?
27. Which one of the following is rightly described as the Magna Carta of local government in India?
28. Consider the following statements 1. Aitchison Commission of 1886 classified the civil services into imperial, provincial and subordinate services. 2. Islington Commission of 1912 suggested the categorisation of services into Class Ill and Class II. 3. Ross Barker was the Chairman of Public Service Commission in 1926. 4. Lee Commission recommended Indianisation of the civil services. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
29. The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this, normally, is traced to which of the following?
30. The following is true about the Better Government of India Act, 1858
31. Consider the following with regard to The Regulating Act of 1773 1. Directors to be elected for a period of four years. 2. Governor General of Bengal had three members in his council. 3. The newly formed Supreme Court had jurisdiction-both original and appellate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct
32. Nehru's Objectives Resolution reflected the perception of the Constituent Assembly as
33. One of the following groups sought mere reforms in social, economic and political life
34. The idea of a Constituent Assembly to frame a Constitution for India was first mooted by
35. Who acted as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
36. With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, ''Home Charges'' formed an important part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted ''Home Charges''? 1. Funds used to support the India office in London. 2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India. 3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
37. Who of the following acted as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
38. The Government of India Act, 1919 was known as
39. Consider the following statements and select the correct code 1. Additional members at the Central Legislative Council, in 1861, were to be between 6 and 12. 2. One-third of these members were to be non-officials. 3. Executive Council members were to be members of the Legislative Council. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
40. Which of the following is correct about the Council of India? 1. The Council of India was created by the Act of 1858. 2. This Council consisted of 15 members. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
41. January 26 was selected as the date for the commencement of the Constitution because
42. Of the Councils Act of 1909, the Legislative Council Members at the centre were
43. The Objectives Resolution, which outlined the philosophy of the Indian Constitution, was moved in the Constituent Assembly by
44. With reference to the period of Indian freedom strugnle, which of the following were recommended by the Nehru Report? 1. Complete independence for India. 2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities. 3. Provision of Fundamental Rights for the people of India in the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
45. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy's Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of the war members were to be held by the Indian leaders?
46. In the 'Individual Satyagraha', Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second?
47. Consider the following 1. The total number of the Constituent Assemby (1946) members was 299. 2. The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946. 3. The Wavell Plan recommended the institution of Constituent Assembly. 4. Dr B R Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
48. In the integration of the princely states, the following played a major role
49. Which of the following British Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India?
50. During the Indian Freedom struggle, who of the following raised an army called ''Free Indian Legion''?
51. Consider the following statements 1. The discusion in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an all India Federation to the provinces of British India and the Princely states. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
52. Under whose presidency was the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress held in 1929 wherein a resolution for complete independence from the British was adopted?
53. Consider the following statements The Cripps Proposals included the provision for 1. Full independence for India 2. Creation of Constitution-making body Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
54. Poorna Swaraj Diwas was celebrated on the following day
55. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full states of the Indian Union?
56. Who wrote the book—''The Story of the Integration of the Indian States''?
57. Who among the following formulated the Dickie Bird Plan?
58. Which one of the following movement began with the Dandi March?
59. The correct chronological order in which the following states of India were created in 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Haryana 4. Nagaland Which of the codes given above is/are correct?
60. Jinnah's 14 points did not include which one of the following?
61. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in
62. Which one of the following acts provided for a federal form of government for India?
63. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true? 1. It was not based on Adult Franchise. 2. It resulted from direct elections. 3. It was a multi-party body. 4. It worked through several committees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
64. Who is commonly known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
65. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in
66. Consider the following 1. Pitt's India Act 2. Regulating Act 3. Montford Act 4. Morley-Minto Act The correct chronological sequence of the above is
67. Since when the Governor General came to be called the Viceroy of India
68. JVP Committee consisted of the following
69. What was the purpose with which Wedderburm and Caine had set up the Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
70. The nationalist demand of a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the
71. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Government of India Act of 1935?
72. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian Constitution?
73. The first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in
74. Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by
75. Which of the following was ceded by the French to India?
76. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements 1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August, 1947 was 18. 2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
77. The Constitution of India is republican because it
78. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a
79. The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development guided the playing practice in India from the
80. Who among the following proposed the creation of a Preamble before the Drafting Committee?
81. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court gave a ruling that the Preamble was a part of the Constitution?
82. India borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of State Policy from the Constitution of
83. Arrange the terms in proper sequence as they appear in the Preamble of the Constitution of India
84. In which one of these cases, the basic structure doctrine was not affirmed
85. Among these, which is a feature of the Parliamentary system of government?
86. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Indian administration?
87. Which one of these is the primary source of Indian Constitution?
88. Which one of these features is common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?
89. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of
90. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
91. In the following quotation, ''WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic and to secure to all its citizens JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity ; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the National. In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.'', 'X' stands for
92. The Constitution of India has borrowed, Fundamental Duties, from which of these Countries' Constitution?
93. Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?
94. Which of the following two words were added in chronological order to the Preamble through 42nd Amendment?
95. From which one of these constitution has the idea of Preamble been borrowed by the Constitution of India?
96. The Preamble was proposed before the Drafting Committee by
97. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution reads
98. In which one of these cases, the Supreme Court held that''the concept of secularism is that state will have no religion''?
99. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the state are vested in the
100. The word socialist was added to the Preamble in 1976. What is its main objective?
101. The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble may be invoked to interpret the provisions as to 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Relations between the Union and States Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
102. What does Secularism imply?
103. Consider the following 1. The Preamble describes India as a secular state. 2. The word secular was added in the Preamble by the 44th Amendment 1978. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
104. Which one of these is a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
105. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India resemble the American Constitution?
106. The word 'socialist, secular' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation were added to our constitution by
107. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first given in
108. Consider the following statements 1. The Constitution of USA is the primary source of India's Constitution. 2. India has borrowed the concept of Judicial Review from British. Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
109. Consider the following statements 1. Indian Constitution has borrowed the concept of suspension of fundamental rights during emergency from the German Constitution. 2. The idea of liberty, equality and fraternity is derived from the French Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
110. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court initially had held that Preamble is not part of the Constitution?
111. Consider the following Statements 1. Preamble does not grant any power but it gives a direction and purpose to the constitution and its legislation. 2. The Preamble declares the rights and freedom which people of India intended to secure to all its citizens—justice (social, economic and political). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
112. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court emphasized that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution? 1. Keshavanand Bharti Case 2. S R Bonimai Case 3. Sajjan Singh Case Select the correct answer using the codes given below
113. Which of the following is true regarding the Preamble? 1. It is enforceable in a court of law. 2. It is a basic feature of the Constitution. 3. It was amended thrice. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
114. Which one of the following is not related to the Constitutional Government?
115. In a Presidential Government
116. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court
117. Which one of the following is a feature of the Presidential Government?
118. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?
119. Who adopted the Constitution of India on the 26th November, 1949?
120. The Preamble enshrines the ideals of 'liberty, equality and fraternity' - ideals inspired by the
121. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'Socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with
122. Who of the following considered the Preamble as the 'horoscope of our sovereign, democratic and republic' ?
123. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'Socialist' int he preamble of the constitution of India, read with
124. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to
125. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari is/are correct? 1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority to determine the questions of deciding fundamental rights with a duty to act judicially. 2. Writ of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings before a subordinate court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
126. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
127. As part of a framework of human right law, all human rights are 1. interdependent 2. interrelated 3. indivisible Select the correct answer using the codes given below
128. 'Economic Justice'as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
129. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights? 1. A person was detained by the security forces while going for casting vote in Parliamentary elections. 2. A civilian was killed by the army while undertaking combing operation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
130. Socialism refers to
131. The 'Instrument of Instructions' contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
132. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
133. Freedom of the press in India is
134. Socialism is opposed to
135. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
136. Which one among the following statements about the States Reorganisation Act is not correct?
137. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
138. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
139. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
140. Consider the following 1. Right to Education 2. Right to Equal Access to Public Service 3. Right to Food Which of the above is/are Rights/Human Rights under Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
141. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
142. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
143. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
144. Which of the following duties have been prescribed for the citizens? 1. To develop a scientific temper. 2. To preserve rich heritage of our composite culture. 3. To organise village panchayats. 4. To minimize inequalities in income. 5. To secure a uniform civil code. 6. To defend the country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
145. The following does not constitute an example of ''beggar''
146. The Right to Equality
147. Which one of the following writs literally means ''what is your authority'' ?
148. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued
149. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens
150. Which one of the following is not a part of Article 39 of the Constitution?
151. Honour killing relates to the following
152. Which of the following does not permit awards such as Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan and the like to be used as suffixes and prefixes?
153. Complete the Article 21 with the appropriate word. ''No person shall be deprived of his life or liberty except according to procedure established by law.'' This liberty is
154. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy 1. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the Directive Principles from the Government of India Act, 1935. 2. The Directive Principles aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution. 3. The Directive Principles have to be kept in mind by the government while formulating policy and framing laws. 4. The Directive Principles are justiciable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
155. To have speedy justice' flows from which of the following Articles?
156. In which case did the Supreme Court take the view that the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are complementary to each other and there was no need to sacrifice one for the other?
157. One of the following does not constitute a form of domestic violence
158. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 does not provide the following
159. One of the following is a law that favours women's interests
160. In Vishakha vs State of Rajasthan, 1997, sexual harassment of a working woman at work place amounts to the violation of which one of the following Articles?
161. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
162. In Chameli Singh vs State of Uttar Pradesh, 1996, the Supreme Court included certain facilities in the Right to Life. One of the following was not included
163. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
164. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr B R Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
165. Which Article of the Constitution of India says 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment' ?
166. Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
167. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
168. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
169. In India the Right to 'Freedom of Speech and Expression' is restricted on the grounds of 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. 2. contempt of court. 3. friendly relation with foreign states. 4. protection of minorities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
170. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights which follow from some other provisions in the Constitution. 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Court can issue the writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
171. Which one among the following statements is correct? The press in democracy must
172. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on Indian soil?
173. Consider the following statements 1. Article 21A was added to the Constitution by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002. 2. The 9th Schedule of the Constitution was added by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951. The Supreme Court has in a recent judgement held that all acts which have been included in the 9th Schedule after 24th April, 1973 are subject to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
174. Which one of the following International Human Rights Instruments has been signed by India but not yet ratified?
175. Which among the following Articles deals with the protection of environment and wildlife?
176. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ j urisdiction. 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
177. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be provided in India? 1. One should be born in India. 2. Either of whose parents was born in India. 3. Who has been ordinary resident of India for not less than five years. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
178. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?
179. Which one of the following is a Human Right as well as Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
180. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the ''Right to Freedom'?
181. Consider the following statements 1. The Right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Right cannot be suspended except or otherwise provided by the Constitution. 2. When a proclamation of emergency under Article 352 is declared, the President is empowered under Article 360 to suspend these rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
182. Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution 1. In addition to the structure of the government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy. 2. Through amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the fundamental duties of citizens along with their rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
183. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
184. Consider the following statements 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
185. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?
186. The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights enlisted in the Constitution through which one of the following Amendments?
187. Consider the following explanations regarding free and compulsory education 1. Article 46 requires the state to make provision within 10 years for free and compulsory education to all children until they complete the age of 14 years. 2. The Supreme Court has held that the 'Right to Education' up to the age of 14 years is a Fundamental Right within the meaning of Article 21. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
188. Consider the following statements 1. Article 44 is related to Uniform Civil Code. 2. The issue of Uniform Civil Code is a Directive Principle. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
189. Consider the following statements 1. Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 44th Amendment. 2. It was incorporated on the basis of the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee. Choose the correct option
190. 'Prohibition' can be issued against 1. official having legal authority. 2. tribunals. 3. quasi judicial bodies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
191. Which Article of the Constitution allows the centre to form new states?
192. Under Article 3, what power does the Parliament have in relation to the formation of a new state? 1. It can increase the area of any state. 2. It cannot diminish the area of any state. 3. It can alter the name of any state. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
193. Which of the following are true regarding formation of new states? 1. A bill regarding the formation of a new state can not be introduced in Parliament except on the recommendation of the President. 2. If a bill regarding the formation of a new state or alteration of the name of a state is referred to the concerned state, then Parliament is bound to accept the views of the State Legislature. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
194. What happens to foreign territories which become part of India on acquisition? 1. Either be admitted into the Union. 2. Constituted into new states under Article 5. 3. Merged into an existing state under Article 3(a) or 3(b). 4. formed into a Union Territory. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
195. When citizenship cannot be terminated?
196. In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired?
197. Which of the following classes cannot avail of some Fundamental Rights available to citizens?
198. Consider the following statements 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women. 2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
199. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five articles. They are
200. The Constitution of India recognizes
201. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
202. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of 1. defamation. 2. contempt of court. 3. protecting a scheduled tribe. 4. friendly relations with foreign states. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
203. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens?
204. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
205. A Uniform Civil Code mentioned in the Directive Principles of State Policy ensures
206. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends mostly on
207. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of
208. Fundamental Duties do not enjoy any
209. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
210. Consider the following statements 1. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (the Union and the States) but a single citizenship. 2. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
211. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
212. Which was the capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate state in the year 1953?
213. The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?
214. Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original state out of whose territory the new state was created?
215. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in
216. Consider the following statements 1. Articles 371 to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Asom, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. 2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship. 3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
217. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice. 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry. 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activety. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
218. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implied that
219. Consider the following statements 1. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President. 2. In USA only a citizen by birth is eligible for the office of President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
220. Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of
221. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India. 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code. 2. Organising village Panchayats. 3. Promoting cotttage industries in rural areas. Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
222. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help?
223. The National Commission for Women was created by
224. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
225. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
226. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India 1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. 2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament. 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

227. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that
228. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because
229. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in
230. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?
231. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Vice-President of India? 1. He must be a Member of Parliament. 2. He is elected by proportional representation. 3. He is Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
232. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission of India?
233. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
234. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements 1. The number of ministries at the centre on 15th August, 1947 was 18. 2. The number of ministries at the centre at present is 36. Which of the statments given above is/are correct?
235. If the Prime Minister is a Member of the Rajya Sabha
236. Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed?
237. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is vested in the President. This means that in the exercise of this power
238. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney General of India 1. He is appointed by the President. 2. He must have the same qualifications. as are required by a Judge of High Court. 3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
239. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India 1. V VGiri 2. M Hidayatullah 3. B D Jafti 4. G S Pathak Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenures?
240. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries?
241. In which one of the following ministries the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961?
242. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947?
243. Consider the following statements 1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice. 2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
244. Consider the following statements 1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head. 2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. 3. Executive Power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
245. Consider the following statements 1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament. 2. The main purpose of these committees are to provide a forum for formal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on Policies and programmes of the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
246. The purpose of adjournment motion in our Parliament is
247. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India?
248. Which one of the following is the subject of the Narasimhan Committee Reports of years 1991 and 1998?
249. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976?
250. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
251. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the President of India be impeached?
252. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
253. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements 1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary. 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
254. With reference to Union Government consider the following statements 1. The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily be the sitting Members of Lok Sabha only. 2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
255. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
256. In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
257. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India? 1. V P Singh 2. R Venkataraman 3. Y B Chavan 4. Pranab Mukherjee Select the correct answer using the codes given below
258. Consider the following statements 1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament. 3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
259. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of Members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of Members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?
260. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/ Ministry of
261. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
262. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes in the year 2002?
263. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of
264. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact
265. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India 1. He is appointed by the President of India. 2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of the Supreme Court. 3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament. 4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
266. Consider the following functionaries 1. Cabinet Secretary 2. Chief Election Commissioner 3. Union Cabinet Minister 4. Chief Justice of India The correct sequence in the order of precedence is
267. Which one of the following does not take part in the elections of the President?
268. Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period?
269. Who decides the disputes regarding election of the President?
270. Which one of the following Presidents held office for two consecutive terms?
271. Who among the following got the Bharat Ratna Award before becoming the President of India?
272. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of Indian Parliament 1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President. 2. Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
273. The President of India is elected by proportional representative system by a single transferable vote. This implies that
274. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes Select the correct answer using the codes given below
275. Overseas citizens of India (as per Overseas Citizenship of India Scheme as operational from December, 2005) shall not be entitled to
276. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
277. Consider the following statements 1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha. 2. It is within the purview• of the chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes. 3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
278. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions. Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India?
279. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as judicial power of the President of India?
280. Which one of the following Vice-Presidents resigned from his office to contest for the office of President?
281. Who of the following was a Member of Rajya Sabha at the time of appointment as Prime Minister?
282. Which of the following is not the power of the Prime Minister?
283. Which one of the following statements is correct?
284. Consider the following statements with regard to the Vice-President of India. 1. The Vice-President is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. The Vice-President discharges the duties of the President in case his office falls vacant due to death. 3. In the event of the death of the President, the Vice-President assumes the responsibilities of the office of the President for the unexpired term. 4. In the event of the death of the President, the Vice-President acts as President for a maximum period of six months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
285. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
286. Consider the following statements 1. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President. 2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. 4. The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
287. Consider the following statements 1. The President cannot function without the Union Council of the Ministers. 2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal authority of the Union Government. 3. The Union Council of Ministers can function for sometimes even after the death or resignation of the Prime Minister. 4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the Union Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
288. Consider the following statements regarding a no-confidence motion in the Parliament 1. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution. 2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one no-confidence motion and another. 3. At least 100 members must support a motion of no-confidence before it is introduced in the house. 4. A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
289. Which of the following are included in the actual powers of the Prime Minister? 1. He makes and unmakes the government. 2. With his resignation, the whole ministry resigns. 3. He presides over the cabinet meetings. 4. He is the Chief Spokesman of the Government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
290. Which of the following executive functions of the Council of Ministers are correctly given? 1. It formulates the executive policy of the country. 2. It co-ordinates the policies, programmes and activities of various departments. 3. It has an important role in filling up various political, judicial and ambassadorial assignments. 4. It has an important role in the election of the President. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
291. Which one of the following officials are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister? 1. The Chief Justice of India 2. The Chairman of Finance Commission 3. Governors of the States 4. Judges of the High courts Select the correct answer using the codes given below
292. One of the following is not a method by which the Parliament expresses lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers 1. Declaring that the taxes proposed have to be reduced. 2. Passing a bill introduced by a private member to which the Council of Ministers is opposed. 3. Rejecting a bill introduced by a Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
293. Which of the following are true about the Attorney-General of India? 1. He has the right to vote in the Parliament. 2. He has the right to speak in the Houses of the Parliament. 3. He is not a member of the Cabinet. 4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a Judge of the Supreme Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
294. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the prime Minister's position? 1. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet. 2. He can remove any minister who refuses to co-operate with him. 3. He and his ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha. 4. When the Prime Minister resigns, the senior-most minister in the Council of Ministers is appointed the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
295. The President holds office for a term of five years
296. Which of the following is/are correct? 1. If the election of the President or the Vice-President is declared void, the acts done by him prior to the date of such decision shall be invalidated. 2. Disputes regarding the election of the Vice-President is referred to the Election Commission. 3. No formal impeachment is required for the removal of the Vice-President. 4. No functions are attached to the office of the Vice-President as such. Which of the statements given above is/are correct
297. During which one of the following situations does the Vice-President discharges the functions of the President? 1. When the President falls ill. 2. When the President vacates office. 3. When the President dies. 4. When the President has been suspended. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
298. Which of the following steps can be taken by the President during the Financial Emergency? 1. Direct the Union and the State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable. 2. Suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens. 3. Order reduction of salaries and allowances of all the civil servants. 4. Order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court Judges. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
299. Part V of the Constitution deals with 1. Union Executive 2. Parliament 3. Supreme Court and High Court 4. Comptroller and Auditor General Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
300. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The President' can send messages to the Parliament. 2. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha. 3. The President can summon each House of the Parliament. 4. The President is not a part of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
301. Which of the following powers of the Prime Minister with regard to the conduct of foreign relations are incorrect? 1. He represents the Country in various International Conferences, 2. He receives the Diplomatic Envoys of other countries. 3. He always heads the Foreign Affairs Ministry. 4. He is the only spokesman of the Government on External Affairs in the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
302. The office of the Prime Minister of India
303. Ministers may be chosen from 1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha 3. Outside the Legislature Select the correct answer using the codes given below
304. The financial powers of the President of India are
305. Which of the following powers of the Prime Minister in' relation to the President have been listed correctly? 1. He communicates all the decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President. 2. He supplies such information to the President regarding proposals of legislation and administration of the Union as the President may need. 3. He signs the bills passed by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his absence. 4. He assists the President in making all the appointments. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
306. With reference to the Constitution of India consider the following statements 1. The Council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to both the Houses of Parliament. 2. The President of India cannot appoint anyone as Union Minister not recommended by Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
307. Consider the following statements 1. When Vice-President acts as the President of India, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. 2. The President of India can promulgate ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
308. Generally the first session of the Parliament starts with an address of the President in which
309. Which of the following expenditures are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India 1. Salaries and allowances of chairman of council of states. 2. Salaries and allowances of Deputy Speaker 3. Salaries and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor General. 4. Any sum required to satisfy any judgement of any arbitral tribunal. Which of the statements given above as/are correct?
310. Which of the following are qualifications for the office of the Vice-President of India? 1. He must be a citizen of India. 2. He must have completed the age of thirty-five years. 3. He must be a member of the Rajya Sabha. 4. He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority, subject to the control of said Government. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
311. Who elects the Vice-President?
312. Who has the authority to remove the Vice-President from his office before the expiry of his term?
313. The President of India addresses his resignation letter to the
314. When the Vice-President acts as President he gets the emoluments of the
315. The Prime Minister is said to hold office during the pleasure of the President but in reality he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of
316. Which of the following does the President appoint? 1. Finance Commission 2. Planning Commission 3. Commission on Official Languages 4. UPSC Select the correct answer using the codes given below
317. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered to function as President?
318. A resolution for impeaching the President can be moved after at least 14 days notice signed by
319. Which of the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the President is/are not correct? 1. He has the pardoning power in respect of sentence by court martial. 2. He can grant reprieve and respite in case of punishment for an offence against any law of the land, Union or State. 3. He alone can pardon a sentence of death. 4. His exercise of the power of pardon is open to judicial review. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
320. The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the
321. The Ministers are individually responsible to
322. The candidate for Vice Presidential election must possess the qualifications prescribed for the Presidential candidate except that he must be
323. What is the maximum age prescribed for election as President of India?
324. Who administers the oath of office to the president ?
325. Which of the following factors have led to the decline of Indian Parliament? 1. Growth of delegated legislation. 2. Low level of attendance in the Parliament. 3. Frequent amendment of the Constitution. 4. Frequent promulgation of ordinances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
326. The term ''Cabinet'' is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution?
327. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
328. Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha?
329. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the codes given below
330. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tern Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
331. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any constituency in India. 2. As per the representation of the People Act 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, this will be disqualification to contest election. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
332. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of electoral democracy which is based on
333. Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at
334. Consider the following statements 1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and the area of the State. 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
335. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid. 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid. 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
336. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament
337. The quorum for saint sitting of the Indian Parliament is
338. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
339. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees 1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings. 2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
340. Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the States, and division of each State into territorial constituencies?
341. Consider the following statements 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the same manner as any other bill. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
342. Consider the following statements 1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States. 2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
343. Which of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?
344. When an Ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a
345. In which among the following cases, the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned? 1. To amend the Constitution. 2. When a bill has been pending with one house for more than six months after it was passed by the other. 3. When both the houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a bill. 4. When a bill is passed by one house and is rejected by the other. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
346. The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a
347. Joint Parliamentary session in India are chaired by the
348. Areawise, which one of the following is the largest Lok Sabha Constituency?
349. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to
350. If any question arises whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, whose decision shall be final?
351. Who among the following chooses the Speaker of the House of People?
352. The authorisation for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
353. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of government business are credited to the
354. When is the Annual Union Budget not passed by the Lok Sabha?
355. Under which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
356. Consider the following statements 1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha,Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
357. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
358. Consider the following statements 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List. 2. Resolutions approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
359. Consider the following statements 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House 'sine die' but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House. 2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President. 3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until 'immediately before the first meeting of the House.' Which of the statements given above are correct?
360. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
361. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
362. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of
363. Which one of the following bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
364. The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the
365. The term of the Lok Sabha
366. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
367. As the time of becoming the Prime Minister of our country one
368. The speaker can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak. This is known as
369. The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for scheduled tribes in the Lok Sabha is
370. The composition of the Committee on Public Undertaking which has a total of 15 members in terms of member from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are
371. Consider the following statements 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
372. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisement. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the constitution of India. In this context. Which one among the following statements in correct?
373. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct following statements is not correct.
374. Who among the following was returned unopposed to the first Lok Sabha?
375. Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Committees 1. They are a subset of Council of Ministers. 2. The scrutiny of Legislative and Constitutional Amendment Bills gets done in these committees. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
376. When an advance grant is made by Parliament, pending the regular passage of the budget, it is called
377. Consider the following statements Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the proceedings of that Lok Sabha. 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha. 3. speak in the Lok Sabha. 4. vote in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
378. The Public Account Committee presents its report to the
379. Which one among the following Committees of the Parliament of India has no members of the Rajya Sabha?
380. Consider the following statements 1. The anti-defection law bans an elected member from voting against the explicit mandate of his/her party. 2. The anti-defection provisions do not apply if one-third of the members of a party disobey mandate of the party and constitute themselves as a separate party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
381. The Tenth Schedule added to the Constitution of India by the 52nd Amendment related to
382. In a parliamentary democracy the
383. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
384. Which of the following points of criticism are levelled against the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution? 1. There is no provision for special conventions for amendment of the Constitution as in the U S A. 2. Too much power has been given to the States in the matter of proposing amendments to the Constitution. 3. The states have not been given sufficient powers with regard to amendment of the Constitution. 4. Too much power has been given to the Union Parliament with regard to the amendment of the Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
385. Money from the Contingency Fund of India can be withdrawn only after
386. The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at
387. The privileges enjoyed by the Members of Parliament individually include 1. freedom from arrest in all cases. 2. freedom from attendance as witness while Parliament is in session. 3. unlimited freedom of speech. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
388. Money Bill 1. cannot be introduced in the Council of States. 2. needs to be certified as such by the Speaker. 3. can be amended by the Council of States. 4. President has to assent it without delay. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
389. Which House is better placed with regard to control over the executive?
390. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by the
391. A joint sitting may be called 1. only in case of national emergency. 2. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry. 3. when taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
392. When a resolution for the removal of the speaker is under consideration, the Speaker 1. does not take part in the proceedings of the House. 2. has no right to vote. 3. has the right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
393. Which of the following are a function of Parliament in India? 1. Providing the cabinet and holding them responsible. 2. Critically analysing government policy. 3. Grievance ventilation. 4. Securing relevant information on government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
394. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse?
395. All moneys received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to 1. the Consolidated Fund of India 2. the Public Account of India 3. the Contingency Fund of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below
396. Which of the following is concerned with the regularity and economy of expenditure of government?
397. Parliament is empowered to get the following removed 1. Comptroller and Auditor General 2. Supreme Court Judges 3. Chairman of UPSC 4. High Court Judges Select the correct answer using the codes given below
398. The Parliament in India consists of 1. President 2. Rajya Sabha 3. Lok Sabha 4. Vice President Select the correct answer using the codes given below
399. The Members of the Rajya Sabha are
400. An Appropriation Bill 1. is necessary to draw money from the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. cannot be amended to vary the amount of any charged expenditure. 3. includes only the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. is required to withdraw money from the Contingency Fund of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below